Most Important 50 MCQs with Solution
Unit 2nd Pharmacology 4th semester Mcq
General Pharmacology
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Adverse drug reactions
c. Drug interactions (pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic)
d. Drug discovery and clinical evaluation of new drugs
Syllabus
General Pharmacology
a. Pharmacodynamics- Principles and mechanisms of drug action. Receptor theories and classification of receptors, regulation of receptors. drug receptors interactions signal transduction mechanisms, G-protein–coupled receptors, ion channel receptor, transmembrane enzyme linked receptors, transmembrane JAK-STAT binding receptor and receptors that regulate transcription factors, dose response relationship, therapeutic index, combined effects of drugs and factors modifying drug action.
b. Adverse drug reactions.
c. Drug interactions (pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic)
d. Drug discovery and clinical evaluation of new drugs -Drug discovery phase, preclinical evaluation phase, clinical trial phase, phases of clinical trials and pharmacovigilance.
Multiple Choice Questions
01. Pharmacodynamics is the study of all these EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
02. Pharmacodynamics is the study of:
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs
c) Distribution of drugs
d) Excretion of drug
03. Pharmacodynamics involves which of the following?
a) Information on main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information on unwanted effects
c) Information on biological barriers
d) Information on excretion of a drug from organism
04. Which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”
a) Ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell
d) Carriers activated by a drug
05. Affinity meant for?
a) A measure of capability of drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of capability of drug binds to a receptor
c) Measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) Measure of bioavailability of a drug
06. Target proteins to which a drug molecule binds are:
a)
b) Only ion channels
d) All of the above
c) Only carriers
07. Agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
08. If an agonist with maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
09. If an agonist with submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
10. An antagonist is a substance that:
a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
11. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
12. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:
a) Competitive antagonist
b) Irreversible antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Partial agonist
13. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
14. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:
a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b) Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect
c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand
d) Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer protein (G- protein) which in turn generates an intracellular second messenger
15. Tick the secondary messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) CAMP
16. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to secondary messengers
a) Camp
b) cGMP
d) Calcium ions
c) G-protein
17. The increase of secondary messengers’ CAMP, CGMP, Ca 2+etc.) concentration leads to
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
18. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels
a) Sodium channel blockers
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Potassium channels activators
d) All of the above
19. Which of the following statement about efficacy and potency is not true:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED is a measure of drug’s efficacy
20. Therapeutical dose is:
a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism
21. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
22. When a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly that may develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
d) Tachyphylaxis
c) Tolerance
23. Gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop may be defined as?
b) Cumulative effect
a) Refractoriness
c) Tachyphylaxis
d) Tolerance
24. Decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes may be defined as?
b) Cumulative effect
a) Refractoriness
d) Tachyphylaxis
c) Tolerance
25. Tachyphylaxis may be defined as
a) Drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
26. Drug resistance may be defined as the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or anti-tumour drugs:
a) True
b) False
27. Tolerance and drug resistance is the affect of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of drug after first-pass metabolism
28. Tolerance and drug resistance is the affect of:
a) Change or loss of receptors, or exhaustion of mediators
b) Increased receptor sensitivity
c) Decreased metabolic degradation
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion
29. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
30. Which Reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase?
a) the conversion of ATP to cAMP
b) the conversion of cAMP to AMP
c) the conversion of cAMP to ATP
d) the conversion of AMP to cAMP
31. The failure in continue administering of drug results in a serious psychological and somatic disturbances known as?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
32. The type of drug-to-drug interaction that is related to processes of absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
33. The type of drug-to-drug interaction that results in interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
34. Which phenomena may occur in case of using a multiple drugs in combination?
a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism
35. Two drugs with the same effect, taken together, that produce an effect which is equal to the sum of effects of the drugs given individually, is known as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
36. What does the term “potentiation” mean?
a) Cumulative ability of a drug
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Increase in drug effects due to many combination
37. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
38. “chemical antagonism” means:
a) two drugs mixed with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs mixed with one another to form a active compound
c) two drugs mixed with one another to form a water soluble compound
d) two drugs mixed with one another to form a fat soluble compound
39. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal damage
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
40. Which unwanted reaction isn’t related to a dose or pharmacodynamic of the drug:
a) Hypersensitivity
b) Teratogenic action
property of a drug is called:
c) Idiosyncrasy
d) Tolerance
41. The idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
42. Therapeutic index (TI) is the ratio to:
a) Evaluate the safety and efficacy of a drug
b) Evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
c) Evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d) Evaluate the elimination of a drug
43. Which of the following is example of second messenger effect:
a) increases in CAMP intracellular concentration
b) changes in intracellular calcium concentration
c) phosphoinositide effects
d) all the above
44. EC50 mainly reflexs a drug’s:
a) maximal effect
b) potency
c) lethality
d) ease of elimination
e) safety
45. What is the effect of Nitric oxide on vascular smooth muscle:
a) smooth muscle relaxation
b) smooth muscle contraction
c) no effect
46. Receptors are usually:
a) lipids
b) proteins
c) DNA
47. Which of the following is a structural protein:
a) Na/K ATPase
b) acetylcholinesterase
c) tubulin
d) DNA
e) phospholipase C
48. An example of an agent that exerts much of its effects through intracellular receptors that in complex form binds to DNA response elements:
a) acetylcholine
b) dopamine
c) corticosteroids
d) diltiazem
e) atropine
49. SH2 domain specifically binds to:
a) GDP
b) Ca-2
c) Phosphorylated tyrosine residues
d) Phosphorylated serine residues
50. CAMP and CGMP are derived from:
a) ATP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and GTP by adenylate cyclase respectively
b) ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and gualnlate cyclase respectivelya6
c) GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and ATP by guanylate cyclase respectively
d) None
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