Unit 2nd Pharmacology-1 4th Semester Most Important MCQs With Solution

Most Important 50 MCQs with Solution

Unit 2nd Pharmacology 4th semester Mcq

General Pharmacology
a. Pharmacodynamics

b. Adverse drug reactions
c. Drug interactions (pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic)
d. Drug discovery and clinical evaluation of new drugs

Syllabus

General Pharmacology

a. Pharmacodynamics- Principles and mechanisms of drug action. Receptor theories and classification of receptors, regulation of receptors. drug receptors interactions signal transduction mechanisms, G-protein–coupled receptors, ion channel receptor, transmembrane enzyme linked receptors, transmembrane JAK-STAT binding receptor and receptors that regulate transcription factors, dose response relationship, therapeutic index, combined effects of drugs and factors modifying drug action.

b. Adverse drug reactions.

c. Drug interactions (pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic)

d. Drug discovery and clinical evaluation of new drugs -Drug discovery phase, preclinical evaluation phase, clinical trial phase, phases of clinical trials and pharmacovigilance.


Multiple Choice Questions

01. Pharmacodynamics is the study of all these EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions

02. Pharmacodynamics is the study of:
a) Mechanisms of drug action
b) Biotransformation of drugs
c) Distribution of drugs
d) Excretion of drug

03. Pharmacodynamics involves which of the following?
a) Information on main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information on unwanted effects
c) Information on biological barriers
d) Information on excretion of a drug from organism

04. Which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”
a) Ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell
d) Carriers activated by a drug

05. Affinity meant for?
a) A measure of capability of drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of capability of drug binds to a receptor
c) Measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) Measure of bioavailability of a drug

06. Target proteins to which a drug molecule binds are:
a)
b) Only ion channels
d) All of the above
c) Only carriers

07. Agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

08. If an agonist with maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist

09. If an agonist with submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist

10. An antagonist is a substance that:
a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

11. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist

12. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:
a) Competitive antagonist
b) Irreversible antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Partial agonist

13. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above

14. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:
a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b) Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect
c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand
d) Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer protein (G- protein) which in turn generates an intracellular second messenger

15. Tick the secondary messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) CAMP

16. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to secondary messengers
a) Camp
b) cGMP
d) Calcium ions
c) G-protein

17. The increase of secondary messengers’ CAMP, CGMP, Ca 2+etc.) concentration leads to
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands

18. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels
a) Sodium channel blockers
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Potassium channels activators
d) All of the above

19. Which of the following statement about efficacy and potency is not true:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED is a measure of drug’s efficacy

20. Therapeutical dose is:
a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism

21. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism

22. When a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly that may develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
d) Tachyphylaxis
c) Tolerance

23. Gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop may be defined as?
b) Cumulative effect
a) Refractoriness
c) Tachyphylaxis
d) Tolerance

24. Decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes may be defined as?
b) Cumulative effect
a) Refractoriness
d) Tachyphylaxis
c) Tolerance

25. Tachyphylaxis may be defined as
a) Drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above

26. Drug resistance may be defined as the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or anti-tumour drugs:
a) True
b) False

27. Tolerance and drug resistance is the affect of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of drug after first-pass metabolism

28. Tolerance and drug resistance is the affect of:
a) Change or loss of receptors, or exhaustion of mediators
b) Increased receptor sensitivity
c) Decreased metabolic degradation
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion

29. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

30. Which Reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase?
a) the conversion of ATP to cAMP
b) the conversion of cAMP to AMP
c) the conversion of cAMP to ATP
d) the conversion of AMP to cAMP

31. The failure in continue administering of drug results in a serious psychological and somatic disturbances known as?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy

32. The type of drug-to-drug interaction that is related to processes of absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction

33. The type of drug-to-drug interaction that results in interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction

34. Which phenomena may occur in case of using a multiple drugs in combination?
a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism

35. Two drugs with the same effect, taken together, that produce an effect which is equal to the sum of effects of the drugs given individually, is known as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above

36. What does the term “potentiation” mean?
a) Cumulative ability of a drug
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Increase in drug effects due to many combination

37. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive

38. “chemical antagonism” means:
a) two drugs mixed with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs mixed with one another to form a active compound
c) two drugs mixed with one another to form a water soluble compound
d) two drugs mixed with one another to form a fat soluble compound

39. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal damage
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys

40. Which unwanted reaction isn’t related to a dose or pharmacodynamic of the drug:
a) Hypersensitivity
b) Teratogenic action
property of a drug is called:
c) Idiosyncrasy
d) Tolerance

41. The idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response

42. Therapeutic index (TI) is the ratio to:
a) Evaluate the safety and efficacy of a drug
b) Evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
c) Evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d) Evaluate the elimination of a drug

43. Which of the following is example of second messenger effect:
a) increases in CAMP intracellular concentration
b) changes in intracellular calcium concentration
c) phosphoinositide effects
d) all the above

44. EC50 mainly reflexs a drug’s:
a) maximal effect
b) potency
c) lethality
d) ease of elimination
e) safety

45. What is the effect of Nitric oxide on vascular smooth muscle:
a) smooth muscle relaxation
b) smooth muscle contraction
c) no effect

46. Receptors are usually:
a) lipids
b) proteins
c) DNA

47. Which of the following is a structural protein:
a) Na/K ATPase
b) acetylcholinesterase
c) tubulin
d) DNA
e) phospholipase C

48. An example of an agent that exerts much of its effects through intracellular receptors that in complex form binds to DNA response elements:
a) acetylcholine
b) dopamine
c) corticosteroids
d) diltiazem
e) atropine

49. SH2 domain specifically binds to:
a) GDP
b) Ca-2
c) Phosphorylated tyrosine residues
d) Phosphorylated serine residues

50. CAMP and CGMP are derived from:
a) ATP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and GTP by adenylate cyclase respectively
b) ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and gualnlate cyclase respectivelya6
c) GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and ATP by guanylate cyclase respectively
d) None

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